Posts
Directions for the following 8 (eight) items:
Read each of the following two passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
Passage-I
1. The objective of inclusive growth was laid down by the founding fathers of the nation.
2. Need of the hour is to have an enabling Government.
3. The Government should engage III maximum interference in market processes.
4. There is a need to change the size of the Government.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: a
2. According to the passage, the strategy of inclusive growth can be effected by focussing on
(a) meeting all the needs of every citizen in the country.
(b) Increasing the regulations over the manufacturing sector.
(c) Controlling the distribution of manufacturing goods.
(d) Delivery of the basic services to the deprived sections of the society.
Ans: d
3. What constitutes an enabling Government?
1. A large bureaucracy.
2. Implementationof welfare programmes through representatives.
3. Creating an ethos that helps individual enterprise
4. Providing resources to those who are underprivileged.
5. Offering direct help to the poor regarding basic services.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 4 and 5 only
(c) 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Ans: c
4. Why is the State unable to deliver "all thai is needed"?
1. It does not. have sufficient bureaucracy.
2. It does not promote inclusive growth.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: d
5. What is essential message being conveyed by the author of the passage ?
(a) The objectives of inclusive growth laid down by the foundings fathers of the nation should be remembered.
(b) The Government needs to make available more schools and health sevices.
(c) The Government needs to establish markets and industries to meet the needs of the poor strata of the society.
(d) There is a need to rethink the role of the State in achieving inclusive growth.
Ans: d
Passage-2
1. A society where diverse art forms and literary writings seck incentive.
2. A society where social inequalities are accepted as the norm.
3. A society where a large number of contradictions are recognised.
4. A society where' the exploited and the oppressed groups grow conscious of. their human rights and upliftment.
Select the correct answerusing the codes given below :
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 4 only
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
Ans: c
7. What according to the passage are the manifestations of social movements?
1. Aggressiveness and being incendiary.
2. Instigation by external forces.
3. Quest for social equality and individual freedom.
4. Urge for granting privileges and self-respect to disparaged sections of the society.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: c
8. With reference to the passage. consider the following statements:
1. To be a creative society, it is essential to have a variety of social movements.
2. To be a creative society, it is imperative to have potential contradictions and conflicts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: c
9. Consider the following three statements:
1. Only students can participate in the race.
2. Some participants in the race are girls.
3. All girl participants in the race are invited for coaching.
Which one of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements?
(a) All participants in the race are invited for coaching.
(b) All students are invited for coaching.
(c) All participants in the race are students.
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct.
Ans: c
Directions for the following 2 (two) items:
1. All animals are carnivorous.
2. Some animals are not carnivorous.
3. Animals are not carnivorous.
4. Some animals are carnivorous.
Codes:
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4
Ans: a
11. Examine the following statements:
1. All trains are run by diesel engine.
2. Some trains are run by diesel engine.
3. No train is run by diesel engine.
4. Some trains are not run by diesel engine.
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1 and 4
Ans: c
12. Consider the four age pyramids given below namely A, B, C and D representing four different countries.
Which one of them indicates the declining population ?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
Ans: c
13. The followings figures has four curves namely A, B, C and D, Study the figure and answer the item that follows.
Which curve indicates the exponential growth ?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
Ans: c
Directions for the following 2 (two) items:
(a) Town A
(b) Town B
(c) Same in Town A and Town B
(d) No inference can be drawn
Ans: d
15. What can we say about persons with more than one disease from these graphs ?
(a) There are likely to be persons with more than one disease in Town A.
(b) There are likely to be persons with more than one disease in Town B.
(c) There'are likely to be persons with more than one disease in both Towns A and B.
(d) No inference can be drawn.
Ans: b
16. Consider the followmg Velocity-Time graph. It shows two trains starting simultaneously on parallel tracks.
With reference to the above graph, which one of the following statements is not correct ?
(a) Train B has an initial acceleration greater than that of Train A.
(b) Train B is faster than Train A at all times.
(c) Both trains have the same velocity at time to'
(d) Both trains travel the same distance in time to units.
Ans: d
Directions for the following 6 (six) items:
Read each of the following two passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
Passage-1
Expanding human' population has an adverse effect on :
1. Spiritual fulfilment
2. Aesthetic enjoyment
3. Potable fresh water
4. Production of food and fibre
5. Biodiversity
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 4 and 5 only
(c) 3 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Ans: c
18. The passage mentions that "some people have actually been harmed by these changes." What does it imply ?
1. The rapid expansion of population has adversely affected some people.
2. Sufficient efforts, have not been made to increase the production of food and fibre.
3. In the short term some people may be harmed, but in the long term everyone will benefit from modifications In the Earth's ecosystems.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None of the statements given above
Ans: a
19. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements:
1. It is imperative to modify the Earth's ecosystems for the well being of mankind.
2. Technology can never replace all the goods and services provided by ecosystems.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: b
Paasage-B:
1. A moral act calls for using our discretion.
2. Man should react to a situation immediately.
3. Man must do his duty.
4. Man should be able to defy convention in order to be moral.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 4
Ans: d
21. Which of the following statements is the nearest definition of moral action, according to the writer ?
(a) it is a mechanical action based on official orders from superiors.
(b) It is an action baased on our sence of discretion.
(c) IS a clever action based on the clarity of purpose.
(d) It is a religious action based on understanding.
Ans: b
22. The passage contains a statement "lets himself be swept along like a log of wood by a current." Among the following statements, which is/are nearest in meaning to this?
1. A person docs not use his own reason.
2. He is susceptible to influence/pressure.
3. He cannot withstand difficulties/challenges.
4. He is like a log of wood.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 4
Ans: b
23. Consider the following distance - time graph. The graph shows three athletes A, Band C running side by side for a 30 km race.
With reference to the above graph consider the following statements :
1. the race was won by A.
2. B was ahead of A up to 25 km 26 mark.
3. C ran very slowly from the begining.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: b
24. Consider the following figures :
What is the missing number ?
(a) 7
(b) 8
(c) 9
(d) 10
Ans: c
25. Study the following figure:
A person goes from A to B always moving to the right or downwards along the Jines. How many different routes can he adopt?
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 7
Ans: c
26. Consider the following figure and answer the item that follows :
What is total number of triangles in the above grid ?
(a) 27
(b) 26
(c) 23
(d) 22
Ans: c
Directions for the following 4 (four) items:
Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.
Passage
1. seek freedom from foreign domination.
2. live in starvation and misery.
3. become revolutionaries .
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Ans: b
28. Consider the following assumptions :
1. A country under foreign domination cannot indulge in spiritual pursuit.
2. Poverty is an impediment in the spiritual pursuit.
3. Subject peoples may become other-wordly.
With reference to the passage, which of the above assumptions is/are valid ?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Ans: c
29. The passage thematically centres on
(a) the state of mind of oppressed people
(b) starvation and misery
(c) the growth of civilization
(d) body, mind and spirit of people in general
Ans: a
30. According to the passage, the torture of the mind and spirit is caused
(a) by the impact of foreign domination.
(b) by the desire to escape from foreign domination and find consolation III visions of past greatness.
(c) due to lack of equilibrium between an external life and an internal life.
(d) due to one's inability to be either revolutionary or other-worldly.
Ans: c
Directions for the following 3 (Three) items:
Read the passage given below, study the graph that follows and answer the three items given belwo the figure.
During a party, a person was exposed to cotaminated water. A few days later, he developed fever and loose motions. He suffered for some days before going to a doctor for treatment. On starting the treatment, he soon became better and recovered completely a few days later. The following graph shows different phases of the person's disease condition as regions A, B, C, D and E of the curve.
31. Which region/regions of the curve correspond/corresponds to incubation phase of the infection ?
(a) A only
(b) B only
(c) Band C
(d) No part of the curve indicates the incubation phase
Ans: a
32. Which region of the curve indicates that the person began showing the symptoms of infection ?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
Ans: b
33. Which region of the curve indicates that the treatment yielded effective relief?
(a) C
(b) D
(c) E
(d) The curve does not indicate the treatment
Ans: c
34. There are four routes to travel from city A to city B and six routes from city B to city C. How many routes are possible to travel from the city A to city C ?
(a) 24
(b) 12
(c) 10
(d) 8
Ans: a
35. A contract on construction job specifies a penalty for delay in completion of the work beyond a certain date IS as follows : Rs. 200 for the first day, Rs. 250 for the second day, Rs. 300 for the third day etc., the penalty for each succeeding day being 50 more than that of the preceding day. How much penalty should the contractor pay if he delays the work by 10 days ?
(a) Rs. 4950
(b) Rs. 4250
(c) Rs. 3600
(d) Rs. 650
Ans: b
36. Consider the figure given below and answer the items that follows:
In the figure shown above, OP 1 and OP 2 are two plane mirrors kept perpendicular to each other. S is the direction of a beam of light falIing on the mirror OP 1. The direction of the reflected beam of light from the mirror OP 2 will be
(a) Perpendicular to the direction S.
(b) At 45° to the direction S.
(c) Opposite and parallel to the direction S.
(d) At 60° to the direction S.
Ans: c
37. Consider the following tlgure and answer the item that follows:
What is the minimum number of different colours required to paint the figure given above such that no two adjacent regions have the same colour ?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
Ans: a
38. Consider the following fogure and answer the items that follows:
A square is divided into four rectangles as shown above. The lengths of the sides of rectangles are natural n umbers. The areas of two rectangles are indicated in
the figure. What is the length of each side of the square ?
(a) 10
(b) 11
(c) 15
(d) Cannot be determined as the given data are Insufficient
Ans: b
39. A person has only Rs. 1 and Rs. 2 coins with her. If the total number of coins that she has is 50 and the amount of money with her is Rs. 75, then the number of Rs. 1 and Rs. 2 coins are, respectively
(a) 15 and 35
(b) 35 and 15
(e) 30 and 20
(d) 25 and 25
Ans: d
40. Three persons start walking together and their steps measure 40 cm, 42 cm and 45 cm respectively. What is the minimum distance each should walk so that each can cover the same distance in complete steps ?
(a) 25 m 20 cm
(b) 50 m 40 cm
(c) 75 m 60 cm
(d) 100 m 80 cm
Ans: a
41. If a bus travels 160 km in 4 hours and a train travels 320 km in 5 hours at uniform speeds, then what is the ratio of the distances travelled by them in one hour ?
(a) 8 : 5
(b) 5 : 8
(c) 4 : 5
(d) 1 : 2
Ans: b
42. There are 100 students in a particular class. 60% students play cricket, 30% student play football and 10% student play both the games. What is the number of students who play neither cricket nor football ?
(a) 25
(b) 20
(c) 18
(d) 15
Ans: b
43. A village having a population of 4000 requires 150 liters of water per head per day. It has a tank measuring 20 m x 15 m x 6 m. The water of this tank will last for
(a) 2 days
(b) 3 days
(c) 4 days
(d) 5 days
Ans: b
Directions for the following 4 (four) items:
Read the follouing passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.
Passage
A species that exerts. an influence out of proportion to its abundance in an ecosystem is called a keystone species. The keystone species may influence both the species richness of communities and the flow of energy and materials through ecosystems. The sea star Pisaster the flow of energy and materials through ecosystems. The sea star Pisaster ochraceus, which lives in rocky intertidal ecosystems on the Pacific coast of North America, is also an example of a keystone species. Its preferred prey is the mussel Mytilus californianus . In the absence of sea- stars, these mussels crowd out other competitors in a broad belt of the intertidal zone. By consuming mussels, sea star creates bare spaces that are taken over by a variety of other species. A study at the University of washington demonstrated the influence of Pisaster on species richness by removing sea stars from selected parts of the intertidal zone repeatedly over a period of five years. Two major changes occured in the areas from which sea stars were removed. First, the lower edge of the 46. mussel bed extended farther down into the intertidal zone, showing that sea stars are able to eliminate mussels completely where they are covered with water most of the time. Second, and more dramatically, 28 species of animals and algae disappeared from the sea star removal zone. Eventually only Mytilus, the dominant competitor, occupied the entire substratum. Through its effect on competitive relationships, predation by Pisaster largely determines which species live in these rocky intertidal ecosystems.
44. What is the crux of the passage ?
(a) Sea star has a preferred prey.
(b) A preferred prey determines the survival of a keystone species.
(c) Keystone species ensures species diversity.
(d) Sea star is the only keystone species on the Pacific coast of North America.
Ans: c
45. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements :
1. Mussels-are generally the dominant species in intertidal ecosystems.
2. The survival of sea stars is generally determined by the abundance of mussels.
which of the statements given above is /are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 ony
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: d
46. Which of the following is/are implied by the passage ?
1. Mussels are always hard competitors for sea stars.
2. Sea stars of the Pacific coast have reached the climax of their evolution.
3. Sea stars constitute an important component in the energy flow in intertidal ecosystem.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
Ans: d
47. Consider the following assumptions:
1. The food chains/food web in an influenced ecosystem are keystone species.
2. The presence of keystone species is a specific characteristic of aquatic ecosystems.
3. If the keystone species is completely removed from an ecosystem, it will lead to the collapse of the ecosystem.
With reference to the passage, which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 nad 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: a
48. Consider the following argument:
"In, order to be a teacher one must graduate from college. All poets are poor. Some Mathematicians are poets. No college graduate is poor."
Which one of the following is not a valid conclusion regarding the above argument?
(a) Some Mathematicians are not teachers.
(b) Some teachers are not Mathematicians.
(c) Teachers are not poor.
(d) Poets are not teachers.
Ans: b
49. A student on her first 3 tests receive. 4 an average score of N points. If she exceeds her previous average score b. 20 points on her fourth test, then what is the average score for the firs 4 tests ?'
(a) N + 20
(b) N + 10
(c) N + 4
(d) N + 5
Ans: d
50. In a group of persons, 70% of the persons are male and 30% of the persons are married. If two sevenths of males are married, what fraction of the females is single ?
(a) 2/7
(b) 1/3
(c) 3/7
(d) 2/3
Ans: d
51. The houses of A and B face each other on a road going north-south, A's being on the western side. A comes out of his house, turns left, travels 5 km, turns
right, travels 5 km to the front of D's house. B does exactly the same and reaches the fron t of C's house. In this context, which one of the following statements is correct ?
(a) C and D live on the same street.
(b) C's house faces south.
(c) The houses of C than 20 km apart.
d) None of the above
Ans: c
Directions for the following 5 (five) items:
Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should-be based on the passage only.
Passage
Now India's children have a right to receive at least eight years of education, the gnawing question is whether' it will remain 'on paper' or 'become a reality. One hardly needs a reminder that this right is different from the others enshrined in the Constitution, that the beneficiary - a six year old child cannot demand it, nor can she or hefight a legal battle when the right is denied or violated. In all cases, it is the adult society which must act on behalf of the child. In another peculiarity, where a child's right to education is denied, no compensation offered later can be adequate or relevant. This is so because childhood does not last. if a legal battle fought on behalf of a child is eventually won, it may be of little use to the boy or girl because the opportunity missed at school during childhood cannot serve the same purpose later in life. This may be painfully true for girls because our society permits them only a short childhood, if at all. The Right to Education (RTE) has become law at a point in India's history when the ghastly practice of female infanticide has resurfaced in the form of foeticide. This is "symptomatic of a deeper turmoil" in society which compounding the traditional obstacles to the education of girls. "Tenacious prejudice against the intellectual potential of girls runs across our cultural diversity and the system of education has not been able to address it.
52. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements :
1. When children are denied education, adult society does not act on behalf of them.
2. Right to Education as a law cannot be enforced in the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: d
53. According to the passage, what could be 55 the traditional obstacles to the education of girls ?
1. Inability of parents to fight a legal battle when the Right to Education is denied to their children.
2. The traditional way of thinking about girl's role in society.
3. The prejudice against the intellectual potential of girls.
4. Improper system of education.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: b
54. On the basis of the passage, consider the following statements:
1. Right to Education is a legal right and not a fundamental right.
2. For realising the goal of universal education, the education system in the country must be made identical to that of developed countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: d
55. Which one of the following statements conveys the key message of the passage ?
(a) India has declared that education is compulsory for its children.
(b) Adult society is not keen on implementing the Right to Education.
(c) The Right to Education, particularly of a girl child, needs to be safeguarded.
(d) The system of education should be address the issue of right to education.
Ans: c
56. Which one of the following statements conveys the inference of the passage ?
(a) The society has a tenacious prejudice against the intellectual potential of girls.
(b) Adults cannot be relied upon to fight on behalf of children for their Right to Education.
(c) The legal fight to get education for children is often protracted and prohibitive.
(d) There is no sufficient substitute for education received in childhood.
Ans: d
Read the following paesage and answer (three) items that follow:
A, B, C, D and E are members of the same family. There are two fathers, two sons, two wives, three males and two females. The teacher was the, wife of a lawyer who was the son of a doctor. E is not male, neither also a wife of a professional. C is the youngest person in the family and D is the eldest. B is a male.
57. How is D realated to E ?
(a) Husband
(b) Son
(c) Father
(d) Wife
Ans: a
58. Who are the females in the group ?
(a) C and E
(b) C and D
(c) E and A
(d) D and E
Ans: c
59. Whose wife is the teacher?
(a) C
(b) D
(c) A
(d) B
Ans: d
Read the following passage and ans the 3 (three) items that follow:
In a survey regarding a proposal measure to be introduced, 2878 person took part of which 1652 were males. 12 persons voted against the proposal which 796 were males. 1425 persons vote for the proposal. 196 females wet undecided.
60. How many females voted for the proposal ?
(a) 430
(b) 600
(c) 624
(d) 640
Ans: b
61. How many males were undecided ?
(a) 31
(b) 227
(c) 426
(d) 581
Ans: a
62. How many females were not in favour the proposal ?
(a) 430
(b) 496
(c) 586
(d) 1226
Ans: a
63. In a queue, Mr. X is fourteenth from the front and Mr. Y is seventeenth from the end, while Mr. Z is exactly in between Mr. X and Mr. Y. If Mr. X is ahead Mr. Y and there are 48 persons in the queue, how many persons are then between Mr. X and Mr. Z ?
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 9
Ans: c
Directions for the following 9 (nine) items:
The following nine items (Questions 64 to 72) are based on three passages in English to test the comprehension of English language and therefore these items do not have Hindi version. Read each passage and answer the items that follow.
Passage-I
He walked several miles that day but could not get anything to eat or drink except some dry bread and some water, which he got from cottagers and farmers. As night fell, he slept under a haystack lying in a meadow. He felt frightened at first, for the wind blew awfully over the empty fields. He felt cold and hungry, and was feeling more lonely than he had ever felt before. He however, soon fell asleep, being much tired with his long walk. When he got up next day, he was feeling terribly hungry so he purchased a loaf of bread with a few coins that he had.
64. When the night fell, he slept
(a) in the open field
(b) under a pile of dry grass
(c) in a farmer's cottage
(d) under a tree
Ans: b
65. He soon fell asleep because
(a) he was exhausted
(b) he was all alone
(c) he had not slept for days
(d) he was very frightened
Ans: a
66. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements :
1. He was walking through the countryside,
2. The cottagers and farmers gave his enough food so that he could sleep at night without feeling hungry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: a
Passage - II
I opened the bag and packed the boots in ; and then , just as I was going to close it, a horrible idea occured to meet Had I packed my toothbrush ? I don't know how it is, but I never do know whether I've packed my toothbrush. My toothbrush is a thing that haunts me when I'm travelling, an makes my life a misery, I dream that haven't packed it, and wake up in a col perspiration, and get out of bed and hur for it. And, in the morning, I pack it before I have used it, and it is always the last thing I turn out of the bag; and then repack and forget it, and have to rug upstairs for it at the last moment an carry it to the railway station, wrapped u in my pocket-handkerchief.
67. When he was going to close the bag, the idea that occurred to him was
(a) unpleasant
(b) sad
(c) fantastic
(d) amusing
Ans: a
68. What makes his life miserable whenever he undertakes travelling?
(a) Going to railway station
(b) Forgetting the toothbrush
(c) Packing his bag
(d) Bad dreams
Ans: b
69. His toothbrush is finally
(a) in his bag
(b) in his bed
(c) in his handkerchief
(d) lost
Ans: c
Passage-III
In spring, polar bear mothers emerge from dens with three month old cubs. The mother bear has fasted for as long as eight months but that does not stop the young
from demanding full access to her remaining reserves. If there are triplets, the most persistent stands to gain an extra meal and it may have the meal at
the expense of others. The smallest of the litter forfeits many meals to stronger siblings. Females are protective of their cubs but tend to ignore family rivalry over
food. In 21 years of photographing polar bears, I've only once seen the smallest of triplets survive till autumn.
70. Female polar bears give birth during
(a) spnng
(b) summer
(c) autumn
(d) winter
Ans: d
71. Mother bear
(a) takes sides over cubs
(b) lets the cubs fend for themselves
(c) feeds only their favourites
(d) see that all cubs get an equal share
Ans: b
72. With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. Polar bears fast as long as eight months due to non-availability prey.
2. Polar bears always give birth to triplets.
Which of the assumptions given above is/are valid?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: d
Directions for the following 8 (eight) items:
Given below are eight items. Each item describes a situation and is followed by four possible responses. Indicate the response you find most appropriate. Choose only one response for each item. The responses will be evaluated based on the level of appropriatehess for the given situation.
Please attempt all the items. There is no penalty for wrong answers for these eight items.
73. You have been asked to give an explanation for not attending an important official meeting. Your immediate boss who has not informed you about the meeting is now putting pressure on you not to place an allegation against him / her. You would
(a) send a written reply explaining the fact.
(b) seek an appointment with the top boss to explain the situation.
(c) admit your fault to save the situation.
(d) put the responsibility on the coordinator of the meeting for not informing.
Ans: a
74. A local thug (bad element) has started illegal construction on your vacant plot. He has refused your request to vacate and threatened you of dire consequences in case you do not sell the property at a cheap price to him. You would
(a) sell the property at a cheap price to him.
(b) go to the police for necessary action.
(c) ask for help from your neighbours.
(d) negotiate with the goon to get a higher price.
Ans: b
75. You have to accomplish a very important task for your headquarters within the next two days. Suddenly you meet with an accident. Your office insists that you complete the task. You would
(a) ask for an extension of deadline.
(b) inform Headquarters of your inability to finish on time.
(c) Suggest alternate person to headquarters who may do the needful.
(d) stay away till you recover.
Ans: b
76. You are an officer-in-charge for providing basic medical facilities to the survivors of an earthquake affected area. Despite your best possible effort, people put allegations against you for making money out of the funds given for relief. You would
(a) let an enquiry be set up to look into the matter.
(b) ask your senior to appoint some other person in your place.
(c) not pay attention to allegations.
(d) stop undertaking any initiative till the matter is resolved.
Ans: a
77. You have been made responsible to hire boats at a short notice to be used for an area under flood. On seeing the price mentioned by the boat owners you found that the lowest price was approximately three times more than the approved rate of the Government. You would
(a) reject the proposal and call for a fresh price.
(b) accept the lowest price.
(c) refer the matter to the Government and wait.
(d) threaten the boat owners about a possible cancellation of the licence.
Ans: b
78. You are the officer-in-charge of a village administering distribution of vaccine in an isolated epidemic hit village, and you are left with only one vaccine. There is a requirement of that vaccine from the GramPradhan and also a poor villager. You are being pressurised by the Gram Pradhan to issue the vaccine to him. You would
(a) initiate the procedure to expedite the next supply without issuing the vaccine to either.
(b) arrange vaccine for the poor villager from the distributor of another area.
(c) ask both to approach a doctor and get an input about the urgency.
(d) arrange vaccine for the Gram Pradhan from the distributor of another area.
Ans: c
79. You have taken up a project to create night-shelters for homeless people during the winter season. Within a week of establishing the shelters, you have received complaints from the residents of the area about the increase in theft cases with a demand to remove the shelters. You would
(a) ask them to lodge a written complaint in the police station.
(b) assure residents of an enquiry into the matter.
(c) ask residents to consider the humanitarian effort made.
(d) continue with the project and ignore their complaint.
Ans: b
80. You, as an administrative authority, have been approached, by the daughter-in-law of an influential person regarding harassment by her in-laws on account of insufficient dowry. Her parents are not able to approach you because of social pressures. You would
(a) call the in-laws for an explanation.
(b) counsel the lady to adjust, given such a circumstance.
(c) take action after her parents approach you.
(d) ask her to lodge complaint with the police.
Ans: d
1. Union Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee on 16 October 2011 voiced the Finance Ministry’s decision to to recapitalise which of the following PSU lenders to help it achieve compliance with capital adequacy ratio (CAR) norms?
a. State Bank of India
b. United Bank of India
c. Punjab National Bank
d. Bank of Baroda
Answer: (a)
2. A panel constituted by which of the following bodies on mutual funds in October 2011 retained the minimum capital requirement to start a fund house at Rs 10 crore, rejecting a proposal to increase the net worth criterion?
a. IRDA
b. SEBI
c. RBI
d. CCI
Answer: (b)
3. The Municipal Corporation of Delhi collected what amont of tax as property tax in the first half of 2011-12 fiscal, recording a Rs 75.16 crore jump compared to its collections during the corresponding period in 2010-11?
a. Rs 900 crore
b. Rs 950 crore
c. Rs 912.54 crore
d. Rs 971 core
Answer: (c)
4. The Agriculture Ministry on 20 October 2011 proposed a hike of Rs 115 per quintal in the minimum support price (MSP) of wheat to what sum per quintal to cover rising farm input cost and encourage farmers to increase acreage?
a. Rs 1251 per quintal
b. Rs 1293 per quintal
c. Rs 1285 per quintal
d. Rs 1233 per quintal
Answer: (c)
5. According to data released by the commerce and industry ministry on 20 October 2011 food inflation inflation stood at what percentage in the week ended 8 October 2011?
a. 10.6%
b. 10.54%
c. 10.33%
d. 10.91%
Answer: (a)
1. IBSA summit concluded in Pretoria, South Africa. What is the full form of IBSA?
a) India Brazil South America
b) India Brazil South Africa
c) India Brazil Saudi Arabia
d) India Bangladesh South Africa
Answer: (b) India Brazil South Africa
2. Syria announced the creation of a committee tasked with preparing new constitution. Syria is located in____.
a) West Asia
b) South Asia
c) East Asia
d) South America
Answer: (a) West Asia
3. China recently backed Pakistan for UN Security Council seat. UN Security Council consists of 5 permanent members and __ non-permanent members.
a) 10
b) 5
c) 15
d) 7
Answer: (a) 10
4. World Food Day was observed on which of the following dates with the theme- Food Prices – From Crisis to Stability?
a. 15 October
b. 16 October
c. 17 October
d. 18 October
Answer: (b)
5. Name the Indian-born Fauja Singh, 100 year old person who entered the Guinness Book of records as the oldest person to complete a full-distance marathon after crossing the finish line at the Toronto Waterfront Marathon in eight hours, 25 minutes and 16 seconds.
a. Fauja Singh
b. Milkha Singh
c. Veer Singh
d. Navjot Singh Ahluwalia
Answer: (a)
6. Who won the 2011 man Booker Prize for his short novel The Sense of an Ending?
a. Carol Birch
b. Patrick deWitt
c. Julian Barnes
d. AD Miller
Answer: (c)
1. The Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT) upheld a regulatory order directing which of the following group of companies to refund Rs 24000 crore - equivalent to the country's second-biggest lender ICICI Bank's deposit growth last fiscal - for violating securities laws?
a. RIL
b. Tata Group
c. Sahara Group
d. Jindal Group
Answer: (c)
2. Overnite Express launched a new premium service, Overnite Priority on 17 October 2011 with an assured next business-day delivery feature besides a money back guarantee attached to it. The express delivery service (EDS) industry was valued at Rs.10,000 crore is found to be growing by what percentage annually?
a. 23%
b. 25%
c. 27%
d. 28%
Answer: (b)
3. GVK Airport Holdings Private Limited, a subsidiary of GVK Power & Infrastructure Limited (GVKPIL) on 18 October 2011 acquired 108000000 equity shares worth Rs10 each (amounting to a 13.5% equity stake) in which of the following?
a. Mumbai International Airport Pvt Ltd (MIAL)
b. Bangalore International Airport Ltd (BIAL)
c. Kolkata International Airport Ltd (KIAL)
d. Delhi International Airport Ltd (DIAL)
Answer: (a)
4. The department of telecom (DoT) slapped Rs 50 crore fine on which of the following cellular companies for suppressing information, violating licence agreement and renting out more than 3,600 pre-activated post paid SIM cards in bulk to a Delhi-based company that further subrented them?
a. Bharti Airtel
b. MTNL
c. Idea Cellular
d. Vodafone Essar
Answer: (c)
5. Bharti Enterprises, the parent company of Airtel floated a new joint venture with Japanese internet firm for offering mobile internet services in India. Name the firm.
a. SoftBank Corp
b. Aichi Bank
c. Arc System Works
d. Bridgestone
Answer: (a)
1. Rajasthan government on 19 October 2011 launched a web based Social Security Pension system. At which one of the following places the system was launched?
a) Jaipur
b) Jodhpur
c) Bikaner
d) Ajmer
Answer: (a) Jaipur
2. UP state government increased the age limit for recruitment of Primary school teachers from 35 to __ years.
a) 40
b) 38
c) 45
d) 42
Answer: (a) 40 Years
3. Name the Rajasthan Water Resources Minister who was dropped from the Cabinet on 16 October 2011 in the wake of allegations about his involvement in a case of mysterious disappearance of an auxiliary nurse midwife, Bhanwari Devi.
a. Mahipal Maderna
b. Bharat Singh
c. Aimaduddin Ahmad
d. Bharat Singh
Answer: (a)
4. The Save Sharmila Campaign was flagged off by Magsaysay award winner Sandeep Pandey on 16 October 2011. In which of the following Indian cities was the campaign launched?
a. Imphal
b. Srinagar
c. Guwahati
d. Shillong
Answer: (b)
5. Who was honoured with the Swiss Ambassador's award for exceptional leadership and his contribution to strengthening bilateral ties between India and Switzerland on 16 October 2011?
a. Anil Ambani
b. Rattan Tata
c. Narayan Murthy
d. G D Birla
Answer: (b)
1. Scientists identified the bug, which caused the Bubonic plague (Black Death) in Europe between 1347 and 1351. Consider the following statements on Bubonic plague:
i) Bubonic plague still strikes somewhere between 1000 and 3000 people.
ii) Bubonic plague is caused by Yersinia pestis.
Choose the right option:
a) Both i and ii are correct.
b) Only i is correct.
c) Only ii is correct.
d) Neither i nor iii is correct.
Answer: (a) Both i and ii are correct.
2. Scientists identified the genes, which increase a Person’s risk of getting Dengue. Dengue is the most common mosquito-borne infection after ____.
a) Malaria
b) Yellow Fever
c) Japanese encephalitis
d) West Nile Virus
Answer: (a) Malaria
3. Scientists found the Ozone hole above Antarctica, which is the fifth largest on record. The size of this Ozone hole is___ square kilometres.
a) 27
b) 25
c) 23
d) 29
Answer: (b) 25
4. Union government of India decided to ban the use of infertility drug Letrozole. Letrozole is mainly recommended for treating ____.
a) Cancer
b) AIDS
c) Dengue
d) Malaria
Answer: (a) Cancer
5. Australian Scientists created the world’s first drug, which can prevent blindness from cataracts. Cataracts are formed when a protein, known as calpain, clouds the eye lens and impairs vision.
a) Hemoglobin
b) Keratin
c) Calpain
d) Myosin
1. Which of the following McLaren’s driver won the Japanese Grand Prix in his adopted homeland, Japan on 9 October 2011?
a. Sebastian Vettel
b. Max Webber
c. Jenson Button
d. Fernando Alonso
Answer: (c)
2. Sebastian Vettel who stood third in the Formula 1 race became the youngest double world champion with four races to spare on 9 October 2011. To which of the following teams does he belong to?
a. Red Bull
b. McLaren
c. Ferrari
d. Mercedez
Answer: (a)
3. Which tennis player retained his Shanghai Masters title by defeating David Ferrer 7-5 6-4 in the final on 16 October 2011?
a. Rafael Nadal
b. Roger Federer
c. Andy Murray
d. Novak Djokovic
Answer: (c)
4. Which Formula 1 team sealed the constructors’ title at the Korean Grand Prix on 16 October 2011?
a. Mercedes
b. Ferrari
c. McLaren
d. Red Bull
Answer: (d)
5. Which football club/team won the 2011 Durand Cup at the Ambedkar Stadium with a 5-4 tie-break win?
a. East Bengal
b. Churchill Brothers
c. Prayag United
d. Mohun Bagan
Answer: (b)
1. According to monetary policy for 2011-12 announced by RBI, the projection of money supply growth for 2011-12 is placed at _____.
a) 15%
b) 16%
c) 17%
d) 19%
The Correct option is – (b) 16%
2. Which of the following represents the budget estimates for net market borrowings by the Union government during 2011-12?
a) Rs. 343,00 crores
b) Rs. 324,50 crores
c) Rs. 452,60 crores
d) Rs. 574,60 crores
The Correct option is – (a) Rs. 343,00 crores
3. According to the budget estimate of 2011-12, the plan expenditure is estimated at
a) Rs 4,52,347 crore
b) Rs 4,32,527 crore
c) Rs 4,41,547 crore
d) Rs 4,24,567 crore
The Correct option is – (c) Rs 4,41,547 crore
4. What is the code name given to the collective international action under UN authority to protect the Libyan people against Muammar Gaddafi’s forces?
a) Operation Ortsac
b) Operation Trident
c) Operation Swift Strike
d) Operation Odyssey Dawn
The Correct option is –(d) Operation Odyssey Dawn
5. As per the Index of Government Economic Power (IGEP) 2011, released by the Ministry of Finance during Economic Survey 2010-11, what is India’s rank in the
IGEP list of economy of around 112 global countries?
a) 3rd
b) 5th
c) 7th
d) 9th
The Correct option is – (b) 5th
6. Which of the following persons has been awarded with the prestigious Sydney Peace Prize for the year 2011?
a) Binayak sen
b) Larry Ellison
c) Mark Zuckerberg
d) Julian Assange
The Correct option is – (d) Julian Assange
7. What is the name of pilot project recently launched by President Pratibha Patil which aims to empower women in rural areas through telecom services?
a) Indira Awaz
b) Awaz Uthao
c) Sanchar Shakti
d) Soochna Shakti
The Correct option is – (c) Sanchar Shakti
8. Which among the following states retained top slot in the list of The Economic Freedom Rankings of the States of India, 2011, recently released by the Planning
Commission?
a) Kerala
b) Tamil Nadu
c) Maharashtra
d) Andhra Pradesh
The Correct option is – (b) Tamil Nadu
9. India’s first Titanium Sponge plant, with a capacity of 500 tonnes, recently has been inaugurated by Defence Minister AK Antony at which of the following locations?
a) Kollam (Kerala)
b) Dhubri (Assam)
c) Angul (Odisha)
d) Udupi (Karnatka)
The Correct option is – (a) Kollam (Kerala)
10. Recently PSLV-C16 rocket launched by Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) from Sriharikota. In context of space research programme, what is the
expansion of term PSLV?
a) Power Satellite Launch Vehicle
b) Plane Satellite Light Vehicle
c) Plane Satellite Launch Vehicle
d) Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle
The Correct option is – (d) Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle
1. What was the mascot of Census 2011?
(a) An Old man with Stick
(b) A Lion
(c) Female Enumerator
(d) A Bird on Indian Map
The Correct option is – (a) Female Enumerator
2. After Census 2011 India become _____ most populous country in the World?
(a) 7th
(b) 2nd
(c) 5th
(d) 4th
The Correct option is – (c) 5th
3. The combined population of Uttar Pradesh and Maharashtra is bigger than that of the.
(a) France
(b) Brazil
(c) USA
(d) UK
The Correct option is – (c) USA
4. Which state has the has the lowest population growth rate?
(a) Mizoram
(b) Assam
(c) Manipur
(d) Nagaland
The Correct option is – (d) Nagaland
5. Which state/UT has the highest density of population?
(a) Mumbai
(b) Delhi
(c) Patna
(d) Bangalore
The Correct option is – (b) Delhi
6. The employment rate in India is estimated at?
(a) 11.24%
(b) 9.24%
(c) 10.11%
(d) None of the above
The Correct option is – (b) 9.24%
7. As per the findings of Tendulkar Committee on Poverty , India’s poverty rate is estimated at____of the total population?
(a) 19.1%
(b) 37.2%
(c) 22.1%
(d) None of the above
The Correct option is – (b) 37.2%
8. The literacy rate has gone up from 64.83 per cent in 2001 to _____ per cent in 2011 showing an increase.
(a) 74.04%
(b) 68.1%
(c) 65.02%
(d) 72.2%
The Correct option is – (a) 74.04%
9. What is the Percentage growth in literacy during 2001-2011 for males?
(a) 12.1%
(b) 11.1%
(c) 31.98%
(d) 22.03%
The Correct option is – (c) 31.98%
10. What is the Percentage growth in literacy during 2001-2011 for females?
(a) 50%
(b) 33.4%
(c) 49.10%
(d) 32.9%
The Correct option is – (c) 49.10%
1. Census held on 2011 was the __________of Independent India?
(a) 11th
(b) 12th
(c) 15th
(d) 7th
The Correct option is –(c) 7th
2. The provisional figures of India’s largest Census 2011 were released in New Delhi on?
(a) 31st April 2011
(b) 4th August 2011
(c) 2nd May 2011
(d) 31st March 2011
The Correct option is – 31st March 2011
3. The provisional figures of India’s largest Census 2011 were released in New Delhi were released by?
(a) Union Home Secretary
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Ministry of health and family welfare
(d) None of the Above
The Correct option is – (a) Union Home Secretary
4. With President Pratibha Patil being the first citizen to be enumerated, followed by?
(a) Prime Minister Manmohan Singh
(b) Chief Justice of India S.H. Kapadia
(c) Vice President Hamid Ansari.
(d) None of the Above.
The correct option is – (c) Vice President Hamid Ansari
5. What was the estimated cost of Census 2011?
(a) 11 Billion Rupees
(b) 22 Billion Rupees
(c) 11 Million Rupees
(d) 1 Billion Rupees
The Correct option is – (b) 22 Billion Rupees
6. Number of total number States/Union territories recorded in Census 2011 was?
(a) 35
(b) 27
(c) 34
(d) 31
The Correct option is – (a) 35
7. Number of districts recorded in Census was?
(a) 640
(b) 740
(c) 840
(d) 550
The Correct option is – (a) 640
8. Which state according to the Census 2011 is most populous ?
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Bihar
(d) West Bengal
The Correct option – (a) Uttar Pradesh
9. Which state/UT according to the Census 2011 is least populous?
a) Daman and Diu
(b) Sikkim
(c) Lakshadweep
(d) A & N Islands
The Correct option is – (a) Daman and Diu
10. Which state has recorded the highest sex ratio in state?
(a) Kerala
(b) Mizoram
(c) Haryana
(d) Punjab
The Correct option is – (a) Kerala
Read each of the following two passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
Passage-I
For achieving inclusive growth there is-a
critical need to rethink the-role of the State. The early debate among
economists about the size of the Goverment can be misleading. The need of the
hour is to have an enabling Government. India is too large and complex a nation
for the State to be able to deliver all that is needed. Asking the Government
to produse all the essential goods, create all the necessary jobs, and keep a
curb on the prices of all goods is to lead to a large cumbersome bureaucracy
and widespread corruption. The aim must be to stay with the objective of
inclusive growth that was laid down by the founding fathers of the nation and
also to take a more modern view of what the State can realistically deliver.
This is what leads to the idea of an enabling State, that is, a Government that
does not try to directly deliver to the citizens everything that they need.
Instead, it (1) creates an enabling ethos for the market so that individual
enterprise can flourish and citizens can, for the most part, provide for the
needs of one another, and (2) steps in to help those who do not manage to do
well for themselves, for there will always be individuals, no matter what the
system, who need support and help. Hence we need a Government that, when it
comes to the market, sets effective, incentive-compatible rules and remains on
the sidelines with minimal interference, and, at the same time, plays an
important role in directly helping the poor by ensuring that they get
basic education and health services and receive adequate nutrition and
food .
1. According to passage :1. The objective of inclusive growth was laid down by the founding fathers of the nation.
2. Need of the hour is to have an enabling Government.
3. The Government should engage III maximum interference in market processes.
4. There is a need to change the size of the Government.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: a
2. According to the passage, the strategy of inclusive growth can be effected by focussing on
(a) meeting all the needs of every citizen in the country.
(b) Increasing the regulations over the manufacturing sector.
(c) Controlling the distribution of manufacturing goods.
(d) Delivery of the basic services to the deprived sections of the society.
Ans: d
3. What constitutes an enabling Government?
1. A large bureaucracy.
2. Implementationof welfare programmes through representatives.
3. Creating an ethos that helps individual enterprise
4. Providing resources to those who are underprivileged.
5. Offering direct help to the poor regarding basic services.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 4 and 5 only
(c) 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Ans: c
4. Why is the State unable to deliver "all thai is needed"?
1. It does not. have sufficient bureaucracy.
2. It does not promote inclusive growth.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: d
5. What is essential message being conveyed by the author of the passage ?
(a) The objectives of inclusive growth laid down by the foundings fathers of the nation should be remembered.
(b) The Government needs to make available more schools and health sevices.
(c) The Government needs to establish markets and industries to meet the needs of the poor strata of the society.
(d) There is a need to rethink the role of the State in achieving inclusive growth.
Ans: d
Passage-2
The concept of 'creative society' refers to a
phase of development of a society in which a large number of potential
contradictions become articulate and active. This is most evident when oppressed
social groups get politically mobilised and demand their rights. The upsurge of
the peasants and tribals, the movements for regional autonomy and
self-determination, the environmental movements, and the women's movements in
the developing countries are signs of emergence of creative society in
contemporary times. The forms of social movements and their intensity may vary
from country to country and place to place within a country. But the very
presence of movements for social transformation in various spheres of a society
indicates the emergence of a creative society in a country.
6. What does the author imply by "creative
society" ?1. A society where diverse art forms and literary writings seck incentive.
2. A society where social inequalities are accepted as the norm.
3. A society where a large number of contradictions are recognised.
4. A society where' the exploited and the oppressed groups grow conscious of. their human rights and upliftment.
Select the correct answerusing the codes given below :
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 4 only
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
Ans: c
7. What according to the passage are the manifestations of social movements?
1. Aggressiveness and being incendiary.
2. Instigation by external forces.
3. Quest for social equality and individual freedom.
4. Urge for granting privileges and self-respect to disparaged sections of the society.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: c
8. With reference to the passage. consider the following statements:
1. To be a creative society, it is essential to have a variety of social movements.
2. To be a creative society, it is imperative to have potential contradictions and conflicts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: c
9. Consider the following three statements:
1. Only students can participate in the race.
2. Some participants in the race are girls.
3. All girl participants in the race are invited for coaching.
Which one of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements?
(a) All participants in the race are invited for coaching.
(b) All students are invited for coaching.
(c) All participants in the race are students.
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct.
Ans: c
Directions for the following 2 (two) items:
Each of the following two items consists of four
statements. Of these four statements, two cannot both be true, but both can be
false. Study the statements carefully and identify the two that satisfy the
above condition. Select the correct answer using the codes given below each set
of statements :
10. Examine the following statements:1. All animals are carnivorous.
2. Some animals are not carnivorous.
3. Animals are not carnivorous.
4. Some animals are carnivorous.
Codes:
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4
Ans: a
11. Examine the following statements:
1. All trains are run by diesel engine.
2. Some trains are run by diesel engine.
3. No train is run by diesel engine.
4. Some trains are not run by diesel engine.
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1 and 4
Ans: c
12. Consider the four age pyramids given below namely A, B, C and D representing four different countries.
Which one of them indicates the declining population ?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
Ans: c
13. The followings figures has four curves namely A, B, C and D, Study the figure and answer the item that follows.
Which curve indicates the exponential growth ?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
Ans: c
Directions for the following 2 (two) items:
The following pie charts show the break-up of
disease categories recorded in the patients from two towns, Town A and Town B.
Pie charts plot the disease Categories as percentage of the total number of
patients. Based on these, answer the two items that follow the charts.
14. Which of the two towns has a higher number of persons
with Diabetes?(a) Town A
(b) Town B
(c) Same in Town A and Town B
(d) No inference can be drawn
Ans: d
15. What can we say about persons with more than one disease from these graphs ?
(a) There are likely to be persons with more than one disease in Town A.
(b) There are likely to be persons with more than one disease in Town B.
(c) There'are likely to be persons with more than one disease in both Towns A and B.
(d) No inference can be drawn.
Ans: b
16. Consider the followmg Velocity-Time graph. It shows two trains starting simultaneously on parallel tracks.
With reference to the above graph, which one of the following statements is not correct ?
(a) Train B has an initial acceleration greater than that of Train A.
(b) Train B is faster than Train A at all times.
(c) Both trains have the same velocity at time to'
(d) Both trains travel the same distance in time to units.
Ans: d
Directions for the following 6 (six) items:
Read each of the following two passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
Passage-1
Ecosystems provide people with a variety of goods
and services; food, clean water, clean air, flood control, soil stabilization,
pollination, climate regulation, spritual fulfilment and aesthetic enjoyment,
to name just a few. Most of these benefits either are irreplaceable or the
technology necessary to replace them is prohibitively expensive. For example,
potable fresh water can be provided by desalinating sea-water, but pnly great
cost. The rapidly expanding human population has greatly modified the Earth's
ecosystems to meet their increased requirements of some of the goods and
services, particularly food, fresh water, timber, fibre and fuel. These modifications
have contributed substantially to human well being and economic development.
The benefits have not been equally distributed. Some people have actually been
harmed by these changes. Moreover, short-term increases in some ecosystem goods
and services have come at the cost of the long-term degradation of others. For
example, efforts to increase the production of food and fibre have decreased
the ability of some ecosystems to provide clean water, regulate flooding and
support biodiversity.
17. With reference to the passage, consider the following
statements.Expanding human' population has an adverse effect on :
1. Spiritual fulfilment
2. Aesthetic enjoyment
3. Potable fresh water
4. Production of food and fibre
5. Biodiversity
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 4 and 5 only
(c) 3 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Ans: c
18. The passage mentions that "some people have actually been harmed by these changes." What does it imply ?
1. The rapid expansion of population has adversely affected some people.
2. Sufficient efforts, have not been made to increase the production of food and fibre.
3. In the short term some people may be harmed, but in the long term everyone will benefit from modifications In the Earth's ecosystems.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None of the statements given above
Ans: a
19. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements:
1. It is imperative to modify the Earth's ecosystems for the well being of mankind.
2. Technology can never replace all the goods and services provided by ecosystems.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: b
Paasage-B:
A moral act must be our own act; must spring from
our own will. If we act mechanically, these is no moral content in our act.
Such action would be moral, If we think it proper to act like a machine and do
so. For, in doing so, we use our discrimination. We should bear in mind the
distinction between acting mechanically and acting intentionally. It may be
moral of a king to pardon a culprit. But the messenger carrying out the order
of pardon plays only a mechanical part in the king's moral act. But if the messenger
were to carry out the king's order considering it to be his duty, his action
would be a moral one. How can a man understand morality who does not use his
own intelligence and power of thought, but lets himself be swept along like a
log of wood by a current ? Sometimes a. man defies convention and acts on his
own with a view to absolute good.
20. Which of the following statements best
describe/describes the thought of the writer?1. A moral act calls for using our discretion.
2. Man should react to a situation immediately.
3. Man must do his duty.
4. Man should be able to defy convention in order to be moral.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 4
Ans: d
21. Which of the following statements is the nearest definition of moral action, according to the writer ?
(a) it is a mechanical action based on official orders from superiors.
(b) It is an action baased on our sence of discretion.
(c) IS a clever action based on the clarity of purpose.
(d) It is a religious action based on understanding.
Ans: b
22. The passage contains a statement "lets himself be swept along like a log of wood by a current." Among the following statements, which is/are nearest in meaning to this?
1. A person docs not use his own reason.
2. He is susceptible to influence/pressure.
3. He cannot withstand difficulties/challenges.
4. He is like a log of wood.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 4
Ans: b
23. Consider the following distance - time graph. The graph shows three athletes A, Band C running side by side for a 30 km race.
With reference to the above graph consider the following statements :
1. the race was won by A.
2. B was ahead of A up to 25 km 26 mark.
3. C ran very slowly from the begining.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: b
24. Consider the following figures :
What is the missing number ?
(a) 7
(b) 8
(c) 9
(d) 10
Ans: c
25. Study the following figure:
A person goes from A to B always moving to the right or downwards along the Jines. How many different routes can he adopt?
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 7
Ans: c
26. Consider the following figure and answer the item that follows :
What is total number of triangles in the above grid ?
(a) 27
(b) 26
(c) 23
(d) 22
Ans: c
Directions for the following 4 (four) items:
Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.
Passage
A country under foreign domination seeks escape
from the present in dreams of a vanished age, and finds consolation in visions
of past greatness. That is a foolish and dangerous pastime in which many of us
indulge. An equally questionable practice for us in India is to imagine that we
are still spiritually great though we have come down, in the world in other
respects. Spiritual or any other greatness cannot be founded on lack of freedom
and opportunity, or on starvation and misery. Many western writers have
encouraged that notion that Indians are other-worldly. I suppose the poor and
unfortunate in every country become to some extent other-worldly, unless they become
revolutionaries, for this world is evidently not meant for them. So also
subject peoples.As a man grows to maturity he is not entirely engrossed in, or
satisfied with, the external objective world. He seeks also some inner meaning,
some psychological and physical satisfactions. So also with peoples and
civilizations as they mature and grow adult. Every civilization and every
people exhibit these parallel streams of an external life and an internal life.
Where they meet or keep close to each other, there is an equilibrium and
stability. When they diverge conflict arises and the crises that torture the
mind and spirit.
27. The passage mentions that "this world is evidently
not meant for them". It refers to people who1. seek freedom from foreign domination.
2. live in starvation and misery.
3. become revolutionaries .
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Ans: b
28. Consider the following assumptions :
1. A country under foreign domination cannot indulge in spiritual pursuit.
2. Poverty is an impediment in the spiritual pursuit.
3. Subject peoples may become other-wordly.
With reference to the passage, which of the above assumptions is/are valid ?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Ans: c
29. The passage thematically centres on
(a) the state of mind of oppressed people
(b) starvation and misery
(c) the growth of civilization
(d) body, mind and spirit of people in general
Ans: a
30. According to the passage, the torture of the mind and spirit is caused
(a) by the impact of foreign domination.
(b) by the desire to escape from foreign domination and find consolation III visions of past greatness.
(c) due to lack of equilibrium between an external life and an internal life.
(d) due to one's inability to be either revolutionary or other-worldly.
Ans: c
Directions for the following 3 (Three) items:
Read the passage given below, study the graph that follows and answer the three items given belwo the figure.
During a party, a person was exposed to cotaminated water. A few days later, he developed fever and loose motions. He suffered for some days before going to a doctor for treatment. On starting the treatment, he soon became better and recovered completely a few days later. The following graph shows different phases of the person's disease condition as regions A, B, C, D and E of the curve.
31. Which region/regions of the curve correspond/corresponds to incubation phase of the infection ?
(a) A only
(b) B only
(c) Band C
(d) No part of the curve indicates the incubation phase
Ans: a
32. Which region of the curve indicates that the person began showing the symptoms of infection ?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
Ans: b
33. Which region of the curve indicates that the treatment yielded effective relief?
(a) C
(b) D
(c) E
(d) The curve does not indicate the treatment
Ans: c
34. There are four routes to travel from city A to city B and six routes from city B to city C. How many routes are possible to travel from the city A to city C ?
(a) 24
(b) 12
(c) 10
(d) 8
Ans: a
35. A contract on construction job specifies a penalty for delay in completion of the work beyond a certain date IS as follows : Rs. 200 for the first day, Rs. 250 for the second day, Rs. 300 for the third day etc., the penalty for each succeeding day being 50 more than that of the preceding day. How much penalty should the contractor pay if he delays the work by 10 days ?
(a) Rs. 4950
(b) Rs. 4250
(c) Rs. 3600
(d) Rs. 650
Ans: b
36. Consider the figure given below and answer the items that follows:
In the figure shown above, OP 1 and OP 2 are two plane mirrors kept perpendicular to each other. S is the direction of a beam of light falIing on the mirror OP 1. The direction of the reflected beam of light from the mirror OP 2 will be
(a) Perpendicular to the direction S.
(b) At 45° to the direction S.
(c) Opposite and parallel to the direction S.
(d) At 60° to the direction S.
Ans: c
37. Consider the following tlgure and answer the item that follows:
What is the minimum number of different colours required to paint the figure given above such that no two adjacent regions have the same colour ?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
Ans: a
38. Consider the following fogure and answer the items that follows:
A square is divided into four rectangles as shown above. The lengths of the sides of rectangles are natural n umbers. The areas of two rectangles are indicated in
the figure. What is the length of each side of the square ?
(a) 10
(b) 11
(c) 15
(d) Cannot be determined as the given data are Insufficient
Ans: b
39. A person has only Rs. 1 and Rs. 2 coins with her. If the total number of coins that she has is 50 and the amount of money with her is Rs. 75, then the number of Rs. 1 and Rs. 2 coins are, respectively
(a) 15 and 35
(b) 35 and 15
(e) 30 and 20
(d) 25 and 25
Ans: d
40. Three persons start walking together and their steps measure 40 cm, 42 cm and 45 cm respectively. What is the minimum distance each should walk so that each can cover the same distance in complete steps ?
(a) 25 m 20 cm
(b) 50 m 40 cm
(c) 75 m 60 cm
(d) 100 m 80 cm
Ans: a
41. If a bus travels 160 km in 4 hours and a train travels 320 km in 5 hours at uniform speeds, then what is the ratio of the distances travelled by them in one hour ?
(a) 8 : 5
(b) 5 : 8
(c) 4 : 5
(d) 1 : 2
Ans: b
42. There are 100 students in a particular class. 60% students play cricket, 30% student play football and 10% student play both the games. What is the number of students who play neither cricket nor football ?
(a) 25
(b) 20
(c) 18
(d) 15
Ans: b
43. A village having a population of 4000 requires 150 liters of water per head per day. It has a tank measuring 20 m x 15 m x 6 m. The water of this tank will last for
(a) 2 days
(b) 3 days
(c) 4 days
(d) 5 days
Ans: b
Directions for the following 4 (four) items:
Read the follouing passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.
Passage
A species that exerts. an influence out of proportion to its abundance in an ecosystem is called a keystone species. The keystone species may influence both the species richness of communities and the flow of energy and materials through ecosystems. The sea star Pisaster the flow of energy and materials through ecosystems. The sea star Pisaster ochraceus, which lives in rocky intertidal ecosystems on the Pacific coast of North America, is also an example of a keystone species. Its preferred prey is the mussel Mytilus californianus . In the absence of sea- stars, these mussels crowd out other competitors in a broad belt of the intertidal zone. By consuming mussels, sea star creates bare spaces that are taken over by a variety of other species. A study at the University of washington demonstrated the influence of Pisaster on species richness by removing sea stars from selected parts of the intertidal zone repeatedly over a period of five years. Two major changes occured in the areas from which sea stars were removed. First, the lower edge of the 46. mussel bed extended farther down into the intertidal zone, showing that sea stars are able to eliminate mussels completely where they are covered with water most of the time. Second, and more dramatically, 28 species of animals and algae disappeared from the sea star removal zone. Eventually only Mytilus, the dominant competitor, occupied the entire substratum. Through its effect on competitive relationships, predation by Pisaster largely determines which species live in these rocky intertidal ecosystems.
44. What is the crux of the passage ?
(a) Sea star has a preferred prey.
(b) A preferred prey determines the survival of a keystone species.
(c) Keystone species ensures species diversity.
(d) Sea star is the only keystone species on the Pacific coast of North America.
Ans: c
45. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements :
1. Mussels-are generally the dominant species in intertidal ecosystems.
2. The survival of sea stars is generally determined by the abundance of mussels.
which of the statements given above is /are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 ony
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: d
46. Which of the following is/are implied by the passage ?
1. Mussels are always hard competitors for sea stars.
2. Sea stars of the Pacific coast have reached the climax of their evolution.
3. Sea stars constitute an important component in the energy flow in intertidal ecosystem.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
Ans: d
47. Consider the following assumptions:
1. The food chains/food web in an influenced ecosystem are keystone species.
2. The presence of keystone species is a specific characteristic of aquatic ecosystems.
3. If the keystone species is completely removed from an ecosystem, it will lead to the collapse of the ecosystem.
With reference to the passage, which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 nad 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: a
48. Consider the following argument:
"In, order to be a teacher one must graduate from college. All poets are poor. Some Mathematicians are poets. No college graduate is poor."
Which one of the following is not a valid conclusion regarding the above argument?
(a) Some Mathematicians are not teachers.
(b) Some teachers are not Mathematicians.
(c) Teachers are not poor.
(d) Poets are not teachers.
Ans: b
49. A student on her first 3 tests receive. 4 an average score of N points. If she exceeds her previous average score b. 20 points on her fourth test, then what is the average score for the firs 4 tests ?'
(a) N + 20
(b) N + 10
(c) N + 4
(d) N + 5
Ans: d
50. In a group of persons, 70% of the persons are male and 30% of the persons are married. If two sevenths of males are married, what fraction of the females is single ?
(a) 2/7
(b) 1/3
(c) 3/7
(d) 2/3
Ans: d
51. The houses of A and B face each other on a road going north-south, A's being on the western side. A comes out of his house, turns left, travels 5 km, turns
right, travels 5 km to the front of D's house. B does exactly the same and reaches the fron t of C's house. In this context, which one of the following statements is correct ?
(a) C and D live on the same street.
(b) C's house faces south.
(c) The houses of C than 20 km apart.
d) None of the above
Ans: c
Directions for the following 5 (five) items:
Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should-be based on the passage only.
Passage
Now India's children have a right to receive at least eight years of education, the gnawing question is whether' it will remain 'on paper' or 'become a reality. One hardly needs a reminder that this right is different from the others enshrined in the Constitution, that the beneficiary - a six year old child cannot demand it, nor can she or hefight a legal battle when the right is denied or violated. In all cases, it is the adult society which must act on behalf of the child. In another peculiarity, where a child's right to education is denied, no compensation offered later can be adequate or relevant. This is so because childhood does not last. if a legal battle fought on behalf of a child is eventually won, it may be of little use to the boy or girl because the opportunity missed at school during childhood cannot serve the same purpose later in life. This may be painfully true for girls because our society permits them only a short childhood, if at all. The Right to Education (RTE) has become law at a point in India's history when the ghastly practice of female infanticide has resurfaced in the form of foeticide. This is "symptomatic of a deeper turmoil" in society which compounding the traditional obstacles to the education of girls. "Tenacious prejudice against the intellectual potential of girls runs across our cultural diversity and the system of education has not been able to address it.
52. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements :
1. When children are denied education, adult society does not act on behalf of them.
2. Right to Education as a law cannot be enforced in the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: d
53. According to the passage, what could be 55 the traditional obstacles to the education of girls ?
1. Inability of parents to fight a legal battle when the Right to Education is denied to their children.
2. The traditional way of thinking about girl's role in society.
3. The prejudice against the intellectual potential of girls.
4. Improper system of education.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: b
54. On the basis of the passage, consider the following statements:
1. Right to Education is a legal right and not a fundamental right.
2. For realising the goal of universal education, the education system in the country must be made identical to that of developed countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: d
55. Which one of the following statements conveys the key message of the passage ?
(a) India has declared that education is compulsory for its children.
(b) Adult society is not keen on implementing the Right to Education.
(c) The Right to Education, particularly of a girl child, needs to be safeguarded.
(d) The system of education should be address the issue of right to education.
Ans: c
56. Which one of the following statements conveys the inference of the passage ?
(a) The society has a tenacious prejudice against the intellectual potential of girls.
(b) Adults cannot be relied upon to fight on behalf of children for their Right to Education.
(c) The legal fight to get education for children is often protracted and prohibitive.
(d) There is no sufficient substitute for education received in childhood.
Ans: d
Read the following paesage and answer (three) items that follow:
A, B, C, D and E are members of the same family. There are two fathers, two sons, two wives, three males and two females. The teacher was the, wife of a lawyer who was the son of a doctor. E is not male, neither also a wife of a professional. C is the youngest person in the family and D is the eldest. B is a male.
57. How is D realated to E ?
(a) Husband
(b) Son
(c) Father
(d) Wife
Ans: a
58. Who are the females in the group ?
(a) C and E
(b) C and D
(c) E and A
(d) D and E
Ans: c
59. Whose wife is the teacher?
(a) C
(b) D
(c) A
(d) B
Ans: d
Read the following passage and ans the 3 (three) items that follow:
In a survey regarding a proposal measure to be introduced, 2878 person took part of which 1652 were males. 12 persons voted against the proposal which 796 were males. 1425 persons vote for the proposal. 196 females wet undecided.
60. How many females voted for the proposal ?
(a) 430
(b) 600
(c) 624
(d) 640
Ans: b
61. How many males were undecided ?
(a) 31
(b) 227
(c) 426
(d) 581
Ans: a
62. How many females were not in favour the proposal ?
(a) 430
(b) 496
(c) 586
(d) 1226
Ans: a
63. In a queue, Mr. X is fourteenth from the front and Mr. Y is seventeenth from the end, while Mr. Z is exactly in between Mr. X and Mr. Y. If Mr. X is ahead Mr. Y and there are 48 persons in the queue, how many persons are then between Mr. X and Mr. Z ?
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 9
Ans: c
Directions for the following 9 (nine) items:
The following nine items (Questions 64 to 72) are based on three passages in English to test the comprehension of English language and therefore these items do not have Hindi version. Read each passage and answer the items that follow.
Passage-I
He walked several miles that day but could not get anything to eat or drink except some dry bread and some water, which he got from cottagers and farmers. As night fell, he slept under a haystack lying in a meadow. He felt frightened at first, for the wind blew awfully over the empty fields. He felt cold and hungry, and was feeling more lonely than he had ever felt before. He however, soon fell asleep, being much tired with his long walk. When he got up next day, he was feeling terribly hungry so he purchased a loaf of bread with a few coins that he had.
64. When the night fell, he slept
(a) in the open field
(b) under a pile of dry grass
(c) in a farmer's cottage
(d) under a tree
Ans: b
65. He soon fell asleep because
(a) he was exhausted
(b) he was all alone
(c) he had not slept for days
(d) he was very frightened
Ans: a
66. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements :
1. He was walking through the countryside,
2. The cottagers and farmers gave his enough food so that he could sleep at night without feeling hungry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: a
Passage - II
I opened the bag and packed the boots in ; and then , just as I was going to close it, a horrible idea occured to meet Had I packed my toothbrush ? I don't know how it is, but I never do know whether I've packed my toothbrush. My toothbrush is a thing that haunts me when I'm travelling, an makes my life a misery, I dream that haven't packed it, and wake up in a col perspiration, and get out of bed and hur for it. And, in the morning, I pack it before I have used it, and it is always the last thing I turn out of the bag; and then repack and forget it, and have to rug upstairs for it at the last moment an carry it to the railway station, wrapped u in my pocket-handkerchief.
67. When he was going to close the bag, the idea that occurred to him was
(a) unpleasant
(b) sad
(c) fantastic
(d) amusing
Ans: a
68. What makes his life miserable whenever he undertakes travelling?
(a) Going to railway station
(b) Forgetting the toothbrush
(c) Packing his bag
(d) Bad dreams
Ans: b
69. His toothbrush is finally
(a) in his bag
(b) in his bed
(c) in his handkerchief
(d) lost
Ans: c
Passage-III
In spring, polar bear mothers emerge from dens with three month old cubs. The mother bear has fasted for as long as eight months but that does not stop the young
from demanding full access to her remaining reserves. If there are triplets, the most persistent stands to gain an extra meal and it may have the meal at
the expense of others. The smallest of the litter forfeits many meals to stronger siblings. Females are protective of their cubs but tend to ignore family rivalry over
food. In 21 years of photographing polar bears, I've only once seen the smallest of triplets survive till autumn.
70. Female polar bears give birth during
(a) spnng
(b) summer
(c) autumn
(d) winter
Ans: d
71. Mother bear
(a) takes sides over cubs
(b) lets the cubs fend for themselves
(c) feeds only their favourites
(d) see that all cubs get an equal share
Ans: b
72. With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. Polar bears fast as long as eight months due to non-availability prey.
2. Polar bears always give birth to triplets.
Which of the assumptions given above is/are valid?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: d
Directions for the following 8 (eight) items:
Given below are eight items. Each item describes a situation and is followed by four possible responses. Indicate the response you find most appropriate. Choose only one response for each item. The responses will be evaluated based on the level of appropriatehess for the given situation.
Please attempt all the items. There is no penalty for wrong answers for these eight items.
73. You have been asked to give an explanation for not attending an important official meeting. Your immediate boss who has not informed you about the meeting is now putting pressure on you not to place an allegation against him / her. You would
(a) send a written reply explaining the fact.
(b) seek an appointment with the top boss to explain the situation.
(c) admit your fault to save the situation.
(d) put the responsibility on the coordinator of the meeting for not informing.
Ans: a
74. A local thug (bad element) has started illegal construction on your vacant plot. He has refused your request to vacate and threatened you of dire consequences in case you do not sell the property at a cheap price to him. You would
(a) sell the property at a cheap price to him.
(b) go to the police for necessary action.
(c) ask for help from your neighbours.
(d) negotiate with the goon to get a higher price.
Ans: b
75. You have to accomplish a very important task for your headquarters within the next two days. Suddenly you meet with an accident. Your office insists that you complete the task. You would
(a) ask for an extension of deadline.
(b) inform Headquarters of your inability to finish on time.
(c) Suggest alternate person to headquarters who may do the needful.
(d) stay away till you recover.
Ans: b
76. You are an officer-in-charge for providing basic medical facilities to the survivors of an earthquake affected area. Despite your best possible effort, people put allegations against you for making money out of the funds given for relief. You would
(a) let an enquiry be set up to look into the matter.
(b) ask your senior to appoint some other person in your place.
(c) not pay attention to allegations.
(d) stop undertaking any initiative till the matter is resolved.
Ans: a
77. You have been made responsible to hire boats at a short notice to be used for an area under flood. On seeing the price mentioned by the boat owners you found that the lowest price was approximately three times more than the approved rate of the Government. You would
(a) reject the proposal and call for a fresh price.
(b) accept the lowest price.
(c) refer the matter to the Government and wait.
(d) threaten the boat owners about a possible cancellation of the licence.
Ans: b
78. You are the officer-in-charge of a village administering distribution of vaccine in an isolated epidemic hit village, and you are left with only one vaccine. There is a requirement of that vaccine from the GramPradhan and also a poor villager. You are being pressurised by the Gram Pradhan to issue the vaccine to him. You would
(a) initiate the procedure to expedite the next supply without issuing the vaccine to either.
(b) arrange vaccine for the poor villager from the distributor of another area.
(c) ask both to approach a doctor and get an input about the urgency.
(d) arrange vaccine for the Gram Pradhan from the distributor of another area.
Ans: c
79. You have taken up a project to create night-shelters for homeless people during the winter season. Within a week of establishing the shelters, you have received complaints from the residents of the area about the increase in theft cases with a demand to remove the shelters. You would
(a) ask them to lodge a written complaint in the police station.
(b) assure residents of an enquiry into the matter.
(c) ask residents to consider the humanitarian effort made.
(d) continue with the project and ignore their complaint.
Ans: b
80. You, as an administrative authority, have been approached, by the daughter-in-law of an influential person regarding harassment by her in-laws on account of insufficient dowry. Her parents are not able to approach you because of social pressures. You would
(a) call the in-laws for an explanation.
(b) counsel the lady to adjust, given such a circumstance.
(c) take action after her parents approach you.
(d) ask her to lodge complaint with the police.
Ans: d
1. Union Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee on 16 October 2011 voiced the Finance Ministry’s decision to to recapitalise which of the following PSU lenders to help it achieve compliance with capital adequacy ratio (CAR) norms?
a. State Bank of India
b. United Bank of India
c. Punjab National Bank
d. Bank of Baroda
Answer: (a)
2. A panel constituted by which of the following bodies on mutual funds in October 2011 retained the minimum capital requirement to start a fund house at Rs 10 crore, rejecting a proposal to increase the net worth criterion?
a. IRDA
b. SEBI
c. RBI
d. CCI
Answer: (b)
3. The Municipal Corporation of Delhi collected what amont of tax as property tax in the first half of 2011-12 fiscal, recording a Rs 75.16 crore jump compared to its collections during the corresponding period in 2010-11?
a. Rs 900 crore
b. Rs 950 crore
c. Rs 912.54 crore
d. Rs 971 core
Answer: (c)
4. The Agriculture Ministry on 20 October 2011 proposed a hike of Rs 115 per quintal in the minimum support price (MSP) of wheat to what sum per quintal to cover rising farm input cost and encourage farmers to increase acreage?
a. Rs 1251 per quintal
b. Rs 1293 per quintal
c. Rs 1285 per quintal
d. Rs 1233 per quintal
Answer: (c)
5. According to data released by the commerce and industry ministry on 20 October 2011 food inflation inflation stood at what percentage in the week ended 8 October 2011?
a. 10.6%
b. 10.54%
c. 10.33%
d. 10.91%
Answer: (a)
1. IBSA summit concluded in Pretoria, South Africa. What is the full form of IBSA?
a) India Brazil South America
b) India Brazil South Africa
c) India Brazil Saudi Arabia
d) India Bangladesh South Africa
Answer: (b) India Brazil South Africa
2. Syria announced the creation of a committee tasked with preparing new constitution. Syria is located in____.
a) West Asia
b) South Asia
c) East Asia
d) South America
Answer: (a) West Asia
3. China recently backed Pakistan for UN Security Council seat. UN Security Council consists of 5 permanent members and __ non-permanent members.
a) 10
b) 5
c) 15
d) 7
Answer: (a) 10
4. World Food Day was observed on which of the following dates with the theme- Food Prices – From Crisis to Stability?
a. 15 October
b. 16 October
c. 17 October
d. 18 October
Answer: (b)
5. Name the Indian-born Fauja Singh, 100 year old person who entered the Guinness Book of records as the oldest person to complete a full-distance marathon after crossing the finish line at the Toronto Waterfront Marathon in eight hours, 25 minutes and 16 seconds.
a. Fauja Singh
b. Milkha Singh
c. Veer Singh
d. Navjot Singh Ahluwalia
Answer: (a)
6. Who won the 2011 man Booker Prize for his short novel The Sense of an Ending?
a. Carol Birch
b. Patrick deWitt
c. Julian Barnes
d. AD Miller
Answer: (c)
1. The Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT) upheld a regulatory order directing which of the following group of companies to refund Rs 24000 crore - equivalent to the country's second-biggest lender ICICI Bank's deposit growth last fiscal - for violating securities laws?
a. RIL
b. Tata Group
c. Sahara Group
d. Jindal Group
Answer: (c)
2. Overnite Express launched a new premium service, Overnite Priority on 17 October 2011 with an assured next business-day delivery feature besides a money back guarantee attached to it. The express delivery service (EDS) industry was valued at Rs.10,000 crore is found to be growing by what percentage annually?
a. 23%
b. 25%
c. 27%
d. 28%
Answer: (b)
3. GVK Airport Holdings Private Limited, a subsidiary of GVK Power & Infrastructure Limited (GVKPIL) on 18 October 2011 acquired 108000000 equity shares worth Rs10 each (amounting to a 13.5% equity stake) in which of the following?
a. Mumbai International Airport Pvt Ltd (MIAL)
b. Bangalore International Airport Ltd (BIAL)
c. Kolkata International Airport Ltd (KIAL)
d. Delhi International Airport Ltd (DIAL)
Answer: (a)
4. The department of telecom (DoT) slapped Rs 50 crore fine on which of the following cellular companies for suppressing information, violating licence agreement and renting out more than 3,600 pre-activated post paid SIM cards in bulk to a Delhi-based company that further subrented them?
a. Bharti Airtel
b. MTNL
c. Idea Cellular
d. Vodafone Essar
Answer: (c)
5. Bharti Enterprises, the parent company of Airtel floated a new joint venture with Japanese internet firm for offering mobile internet services in India. Name the firm.
a. SoftBank Corp
b. Aichi Bank
c. Arc System Works
d. Bridgestone
Answer: (a)
1. Rajasthan government on 19 October 2011 launched a web based Social Security Pension system. At which one of the following places the system was launched?
a) Jaipur
b) Jodhpur
c) Bikaner
d) Ajmer
Answer: (a) Jaipur
2. UP state government increased the age limit for recruitment of Primary school teachers from 35 to __ years.
a) 40
b) 38
c) 45
d) 42
Answer: (a) 40 Years
3. Name the Rajasthan Water Resources Minister who was dropped from the Cabinet on 16 October 2011 in the wake of allegations about his involvement in a case of mysterious disappearance of an auxiliary nurse midwife, Bhanwari Devi.
a. Mahipal Maderna
b. Bharat Singh
c. Aimaduddin Ahmad
d. Bharat Singh
Answer: (a)
4. The Save Sharmila Campaign was flagged off by Magsaysay award winner Sandeep Pandey on 16 October 2011. In which of the following Indian cities was the campaign launched?
a. Imphal
b. Srinagar
c. Guwahati
d. Shillong
Answer: (b)
5. Who was honoured with the Swiss Ambassador's award for exceptional leadership and his contribution to strengthening bilateral ties between India and Switzerland on 16 October 2011?
a. Anil Ambani
b. Rattan Tata
c. Narayan Murthy
d. G D Birla
Answer: (b)
1. Scientists identified the bug, which caused the Bubonic plague (Black Death) in Europe between 1347 and 1351. Consider the following statements on Bubonic plague:
i) Bubonic plague still strikes somewhere between 1000 and 3000 people.
ii) Bubonic plague is caused by Yersinia pestis.
Choose the right option:
a) Both i and ii are correct.
b) Only i is correct.
c) Only ii is correct.
d) Neither i nor iii is correct.
Answer: (a) Both i and ii are correct.
2. Scientists identified the genes, which increase a Person’s risk of getting Dengue. Dengue is the most common mosquito-borne infection after ____.
a) Malaria
b) Yellow Fever
c) Japanese encephalitis
d) West Nile Virus
Answer: (a) Malaria
3. Scientists found the Ozone hole above Antarctica, which is the fifth largest on record. The size of this Ozone hole is___ square kilometres.
a) 27
b) 25
c) 23
d) 29
Answer: (b) 25
4. Union government of India decided to ban the use of infertility drug Letrozole. Letrozole is mainly recommended for treating ____.
a) Cancer
b) AIDS
c) Dengue
d) Malaria
Answer: (a) Cancer
5. Australian Scientists created the world’s first drug, which can prevent blindness from cataracts. Cataracts are formed when a protein, known as calpain, clouds the eye lens and impairs vision.
a) Hemoglobin
b) Keratin
c) Calpain
d) Myosin
1. Which of the following McLaren’s driver won the Japanese Grand Prix in his adopted homeland, Japan on 9 October 2011?
a. Sebastian Vettel
b. Max Webber
c. Jenson Button
d. Fernando Alonso
Answer: (c)
2. Sebastian Vettel who stood third in the Formula 1 race became the youngest double world champion with four races to spare on 9 October 2011. To which of the following teams does he belong to?
a. Red Bull
b. McLaren
c. Ferrari
d. Mercedez
Answer: (a)
3. Which tennis player retained his Shanghai Masters title by defeating David Ferrer 7-5 6-4 in the final on 16 October 2011?
a. Rafael Nadal
b. Roger Federer
c. Andy Murray
d. Novak Djokovic
Answer: (c)
4. Which Formula 1 team sealed the constructors’ title at the Korean Grand Prix on 16 October 2011?
a. Mercedes
b. Ferrari
c. McLaren
d. Red Bull
Answer: (d)
5. Which football club/team won the 2011 Durand Cup at the Ambedkar Stadium with a 5-4 tie-break win?
a. East Bengal
b. Churchill Brothers
c. Prayag United
d. Mohun Bagan
Answer: (b)
1. According to monetary policy for 2011-12 announced by RBI, the projection of money supply growth for 2011-12 is placed at _____.
a) 15%
b) 16%
c) 17%
d) 19%
The Correct option is – (b) 16%
2. Which of the following represents the budget estimates for net market borrowings by the Union government during 2011-12?
a) Rs. 343,00 crores
b) Rs. 324,50 crores
c) Rs. 452,60 crores
d) Rs. 574,60 crores
The Correct option is – (a) Rs. 343,00 crores
3. According to the budget estimate of 2011-12, the plan expenditure is estimated at
a) Rs 4,52,347 crore
b) Rs 4,32,527 crore
c) Rs 4,41,547 crore
d) Rs 4,24,567 crore
The Correct option is – (c) Rs 4,41,547 crore
4. What is the code name given to the collective international action under UN authority to protect the Libyan people against Muammar Gaddafi’s forces?
a) Operation Ortsac
b) Operation Trident
c) Operation Swift Strike
d) Operation Odyssey Dawn
The Correct option is –(d) Operation Odyssey Dawn
5. As per the Index of Government Economic Power (IGEP) 2011, released by the Ministry of Finance during Economic Survey 2010-11, what is India’s rank in the
IGEP list of economy of around 112 global countries?
a) 3rd
b) 5th
c) 7th
d) 9th
The Correct option is – (b) 5th
6. Which of the following persons has been awarded with the prestigious Sydney Peace Prize for the year 2011?
a) Binayak sen
b) Larry Ellison
c) Mark Zuckerberg
d) Julian Assange
The Correct option is – (d) Julian Assange
7. What is the name of pilot project recently launched by President Pratibha Patil which aims to empower women in rural areas through telecom services?
a) Indira Awaz
b) Awaz Uthao
c) Sanchar Shakti
d) Soochna Shakti
The Correct option is – (c) Sanchar Shakti
8. Which among the following states retained top slot in the list of The Economic Freedom Rankings of the States of India, 2011, recently released by the Planning
Commission?
a) Kerala
b) Tamil Nadu
c) Maharashtra
d) Andhra Pradesh
The Correct option is – (b) Tamil Nadu
9. India’s first Titanium Sponge plant, with a capacity of 500 tonnes, recently has been inaugurated by Defence Minister AK Antony at which of the following locations?
a) Kollam (Kerala)
b) Dhubri (Assam)
c) Angul (Odisha)
d) Udupi (Karnatka)
The Correct option is – (a) Kollam (Kerala)
10. Recently PSLV-C16 rocket launched by Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) from Sriharikota. In context of space research programme, what is the
expansion of term PSLV?
a) Power Satellite Launch Vehicle
b) Plane Satellite Light Vehicle
c) Plane Satellite Launch Vehicle
d) Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle
The Correct option is – (d) Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle
1. What was the mascot of Census 2011?
(a) An Old man with Stick
(b) A Lion
(c) Female Enumerator
(d) A Bird on Indian Map
The Correct option is – (a) Female Enumerator
2. After Census 2011 India become _____ most populous country in the World?
(a) 7th
(b) 2nd
(c) 5th
(d) 4th
The Correct option is – (c) 5th
3. The combined population of Uttar Pradesh and Maharashtra is bigger than that of the.
(a) France
(b) Brazil
(c) USA
(d) UK
The Correct option is – (c) USA
4. Which state has the has the lowest population growth rate?
(a) Mizoram
(b) Assam
(c) Manipur
(d) Nagaland
The Correct option is – (d) Nagaland
5. Which state/UT has the highest density of population?
(a) Mumbai
(b) Delhi
(c) Patna
(d) Bangalore
The Correct option is – (b) Delhi
6. The employment rate in India is estimated at?
(a) 11.24%
(b) 9.24%
(c) 10.11%
(d) None of the above
The Correct option is – (b) 9.24%
7. As per the findings of Tendulkar Committee on Poverty , India’s poverty rate is estimated at____of the total population?
(a) 19.1%
(b) 37.2%
(c) 22.1%
(d) None of the above
The Correct option is – (b) 37.2%
8. The literacy rate has gone up from 64.83 per cent in 2001 to _____ per cent in 2011 showing an increase.
(a) 74.04%
(b) 68.1%
(c) 65.02%
(d) 72.2%
The Correct option is – (a) 74.04%
9. What is the Percentage growth in literacy during 2001-2011 for males?
(a) 12.1%
(b) 11.1%
(c) 31.98%
(d) 22.03%
The Correct option is – (c) 31.98%
10. What is the Percentage growth in literacy during 2001-2011 for females?
(a) 50%
(b) 33.4%
(c) 49.10%
(d) 32.9%
The Correct option is – (c) 49.10%
1. Census held on 2011 was the __________of Independent India?
(a) 11th
(b) 12th
(c) 15th
(d) 7th
The Correct option is –(c) 7th
2. The provisional figures of India’s largest Census 2011 were released in New Delhi on?
(a) 31st April 2011
(b) 4th August 2011
(c) 2nd May 2011
(d) 31st March 2011
The Correct option is – 31st March 2011
3. The provisional figures of India’s largest Census 2011 were released in New Delhi were released by?
(a) Union Home Secretary
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Ministry of health and family welfare
(d) None of the Above
The Correct option is – (a) Union Home Secretary
4. With President Pratibha Patil being the first citizen to be enumerated, followed by?
(a) Prime Minister Manmohan Singh
(b) Chief Justice of India S.H. Kapadia
(c) Vice President Hamid Ansari.
(d) None of the Above.
The correct option is – (c) Vice President Hamid Ansari
5. What was the estimated cost of Census 2011?
(a) 11 Billion Rupees
(b) 22 Billion Rupees
(c) 11 Million Rupees
(d) 1 Billion Rupees
The Correct option is – (b) 22 Billion Rupees
6. Number of total number States/Union territories recorded in Census 2011 was?
(a) 35
(b) 27
(c) 34
(d) 31
The Correct option is – (a) 35
7. Number of districts recorded in Census was?
(a) 640
(b) 740
(c) 840
(d) 550
The Correct option is – (a) 640
8. Which state according to the Census 2011 is most populous ?
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Bihar
(d) West Bengal
The Correct option – (a) Uttar Pradesh
9. Which state/UT according to the Census 2011 is least populous?
a) Daman and Diu
(b) Sikkim
(c) Lakshadweep
(d) A & N Islands
The Correct option is – (a) Daman and Diu
10. Which state has recorded the highest sex ratio in state?
(a) Kerala
(b) Mizoram
(c) Haryana
(d) Punjab
The Correct option is – (a) Kerala
No comments:
Post a Comment